Didn't get the memo
Posted: Mon Oct 05, 2009 6:43 pm
In 2001 my wife and I decided to purchase an upscale manufactured home for our 5 acres in central Texas. The dealer, lender, and county tax assesor all stated that if we converted to house to real property it would be considered the same as site built and be classified as a single family dwelling. So we did and life went on.
Our lender always tried to get us to refi and cash in the equity between the original loan and payoff but we never did. Earlier this year when the rates were low and our lender sent another refi offer we took it. We qualified for a 4.5 percent loan. Everything went smooth until the appraiser showed up and started having a fit because it was a manufactured home and he didn't do those. The next day the lender called and backed out of the loan because they didn't do manufactured homes. When I stated they already had the loan, I was told that their records showed it as a single family dwelling. The third party online comparison that they used to prequalify showed it as a single family dwelling also.
Every lender I talked to after that shut the door when I mentioned it was a manufactured home. They had no interest in the real property certificate from the state or how the house was constructed or installed.
We did find a lender that specialized in manufactured homes and refinanced with them. All turned out ok. We ended up with 4.75 percent interest, and their appraiser showed the house only value at $27000.00 higher than what we paid. Not bad for a down market. My question is, does the real property mean nothing other that attached to the land? All the concrete we have poured and landscaping and garage we built doomed to be attached to something that everyone seems to black list? The appraiser had to comp to other manufactued homes in a diffent city because there werent any in my area. The mortgage broker said that under Texas law I could not cash in any equity in a manufactured home. Why are site built home evaluated individually by condition and construction and location but manufactured homes are viewed as all the same? Any input would be appreciated. Thank you
Our lender always tried to get us to refi and cash in the equity between the original loan and payoff but we never did. Earlier this year when the rates were low and our lender sent another refi offer we took it. We qualified for a 4.5 percent loan. Everything went smooth until the appraiser showed up and started having a fit because it was a manufactured home and he didn't do those. The next day the lender called and backed out of the loan because they didn't do manufactured homes. When I stated they already had the loan, I was told that their records showed it as a single family dwelling. The third party online comparison that they used to prequalify showed it as a single family dwelling also.
Every lender I talked to after that shut the door when I mentioned it was a manufactured home. They had no interest in the real property certificate from the state or how the house was constructed or installed.
We did find a lender that specialized in manufactured homes and refinanced with them. All turned out ok. We ended up with 4.75 percent interest, and their appraiser showed the house only value at $27000.00 higher than what we paid. Not bad for a down market. My question is, does the real property mean nothing other that attached to the land? All the concrete we have poured and landscaping and garage we built doomed to be attached to something that everyone seems to black list? The appraiser had to comp to other manufactued homes in a diffent city because there werent any in my area. The mortgage broker said that under Texas law I could not cash in any equity in a manufactured home. Why are site built home evaluated individually by condition and construction and location but manufactured homes are viewed as all the same? Any input would be appreciated. Thank you